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UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (2024-2013)

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Questions from 2024

Q. 1

How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

Q. 2

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eights Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

  1. Konkani
  2. Manipuri
  3. Nepali
  4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 3

Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

  1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
  2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
  3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Q. 4

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

Q. 5

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Q. 6

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

Q. 7

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

  1. Addition
  2. Variation
  3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 8

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

  1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
  2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
  3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
  4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Q. 9

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

  1. Governor of the Constituent State
  2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
  3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
  4. The Home Minister of India

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 10

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Q. 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
  2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 12

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.
  2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 13

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

  1. He She shall not preside
  2. He/She shall not have the right to speak
  3. He She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

Q. 14

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 15

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
  3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Questions from 2023

Q. 1

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

Q. 2

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Govemments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q. 3

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

Q. 4

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Q. 5

Consider the following organizations/bodies in India :

  1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
  2. The National Human Rights Commission
  3. The National Law Commission
  4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

Q. 6

Consider the following statements :

  1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
  2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
  3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare hisfher assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 7

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

  1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
  2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
  3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 8

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements :

  1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place though an Order of the President.
  2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
  3. The Chief Ministers Of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 9

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements .that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defmes the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q. 10

Consider the following statements :

  1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
  2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
  3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 11

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :

  1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislatiye Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
  2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
  3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
  4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 12

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :

  1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
  2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
  3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. 13

With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

ActionThe Act under which it is covered
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniformsThe Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their dutiesThe Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of othersThe Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the correctly matched?

Q. 14

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India, according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I : One of the standard size of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm . .

Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q. 15

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :

Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Questions from 2022

Q. 1

Consider the following statements:

  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 2

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q. 4

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
  2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 5

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

  1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
  2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
  3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 6

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
  2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
  2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 8

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q. 9

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
  2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
  3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
  4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q. 10

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

Questions from 2021

Q. 1

Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates

Q. 2

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

Q. 3

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

Q. 4

Constitutional government means

Q. 5

Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.

  1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
  2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
  3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

Q. 6

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
  2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 7

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
  2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 8

At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

Q. 9

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

Q. 10

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

Q. 11

Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?

Q. 12

With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.

  1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
  2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 13

With reference to India, consider the following statements:

  1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
  2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
  3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 14

Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

Q. 15

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

  1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
  2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. 16

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
  2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 17

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?

Q. 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
  2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
  3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Questions from 2020

Q. 1

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

Q. 2

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

Q. 3

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

Q. 4

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 5

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare state?

Q. 6

With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. They shall be enforceable by courts
  2. They shall not be enforceable by any court
  3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Q. 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 9

Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in _ _ _ .

Q. 10

consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state.
  2. According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 11

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

  1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
  2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
  3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
  4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
  2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
  3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
  4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidate fund of India.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Q. 13

A constitutional government by definition is a _ _ _ _ .

Q. 14

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

Q. 15

A parliamentary system of government is one in which

Q. 16

Consider the following pairs:

Declaration/Dialogue/CoalitionSubject
Alma-Ata DeclarationHealthcare of the people
Hague ConventionBiological and chemical weapons
Talanoa DialogueGlobal climate change
Under2 CoalitionChild rights

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Questions from 2019

Q. 1

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

Q. 2

Consider the following statements:

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 4

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

Q. 5

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
  2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
  3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 6

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

Q. 7

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

Q. 8

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
  2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Questions from 2018

Q. 1

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

Q. 2

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Q. 3

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 4

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 5

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Q. 6

Consider the following statements:

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 7

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

  1. Limitation of powers
  2. Equality before law
  3. People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 8

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

Q. 9

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

Q. 10

Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in a accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 12

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 13

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

Questions from 2017

Q. 14

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 15

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

Q. 16

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

Q. 17

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Q. 18

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

  1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 19

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Q. 20

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

Q. 21

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

Q. 22

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 23

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

Q. 24

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Q. 25

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Q. 26

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. legislative function
  2. executive function

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Q. 27

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 28

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Q. 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 30

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Q. 31

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

Q. 32

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

Q. 33

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 34

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

Q. 35

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Question hour
  3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 36

In India, Judicial Review implies

Questions from 2016

Q. 37

Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 38 & 39

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. 40

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Q. 41

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

Questions from 2015

Q. 42

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

Q. 43

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

  1. People’s participation in development
  2. Political accountability
  3. Democratic decentralisation
  4. Financial mobilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 44

The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

Q. 45

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
  2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 46

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
  2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 47

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

Q. 48

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
  2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 49

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

Q. 50

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 51

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 52

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

Q. 53

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

Questions from 2014

Q. 54

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

  1. Defence expenditure
  2. Interest payments
  3. Salaries and pensions
  4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. 55

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Q. 56

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. 57

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

Q. 58

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
  2. Appointing the Ministers
  3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. 59

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

  1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
  2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 60

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 61

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

  1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Q. 62

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Q. 63

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. 64

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

Q. 65

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

Questions from 2013

Q. 66

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Q. 67

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q. 68

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Q. 69

Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 70

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Q. 71

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

Q. 72

Consider the following statements:

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the states of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 73

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Q. 74

‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

Q. 75

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Q. 76

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

Q. 77

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

  1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. Speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. Vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 78

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

Q. 79

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

  1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
  3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 80

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Q. 81

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 82

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. 83

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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